The word 'Zionism', coined by some Jews in central Europe for going to Palestine and forming an army to defend themselves, first appeared at the end of the 19th century. But the basic concept of all Jews going to Palestine started with the British Anglican clergy in 1843 when they said that "Palestine is a land without a people for a people without a land."
The British clergy thought it wrong to allow Jews, deicides all, to live in the UK. While the Bible says the Jews killed Jesus and then said, 'Let his blood be on us and on our children,' making every Jew since the crucifixion a deicide, I was taught in Sunday School that G_d put upon Jews the Mark of Cain, making it prohibited to kill them (the Nazis must have been absent that Sunday). So the best thing the world could do, according to the Anglican clergy, and first written by Rev. Keith, was to send all the Jews to Palestine.
The UK geography said that Arabs are nomads, they don't have homes, they have tents, and follow their goats and camels around from one grassland to another. They wander from Sanaa to Mecca to Jerusalem to Damascus to Baghdad and back to Sanaa, and they could start going around, rather than through Palestine, which would be exclusively for the Jews.
In the 19th century, Britain wanted to take Arabia from the Ottoman Empire and add it to the British Empire. An early British proposal said that Palestine and Transjordan would be exclusively for the Jews, and the rest of Arabia would be for the Arabs. A later proposal said only Palestine would be for the Jews, Transjordan would be for the Arabs. The final Balfour Declaration said that British Jews must go to Palestine and live peacefully with the Palestinians as British colonials.
After WWI, Britain and France took Arabia from the Ottoman Empire, chopped it up into chunks including Palestine, Jordan, Iraq, and other bits as British colonies, Syria and Lebanon as French colonies. With all of Palestine a British colony (or Mandate, as it was technically called), Britain said Palestine was only for Palestinians and British Jews.
In the 19th and early 20th century, most Jews lived in The Pale, where they were subject to frequent pogroms. Some asked if they could go to Palestine to avoid the pogroms, but the British said, 'NO!' So many went to the US, which allowed anyone to immigrate until 1921, and we got the play, "Fiddler on the Roof". But from 1921 until 1944, Jews were only allowed into the US if they had a Nobel Prize or the equivalent.
So, from 1933 until 1945, Jews in Europe had nowhere they could run, and many were killed. The usual number stated is six million murdered in the Holocaust, but serious historians say we really don't know, the Germans did their best to keep the Holocaust secret. So serious historians say the number is almost certainly between four million to six million Jews that were killed in the Holocaust, and those who want to maximise the horror of the Holocaust always use the six million. The Holocaust is almost alone as being legally genocide, because the legal definition of genocide requires written proof that a religious or ethnic group are being killed only because of their religion or ethnic group, and we have hard proof that the Nazis killed Jews just for being Jews. (We also have hard proof that the Nazis killed Slavs just for being Slavs, but that was not genocide, it just went to show that there's a little good in the worst of men.)
After WWII, The Axis were officially defeated, but the UK and France were also defeated, even if no one said anything. Both had to give up their large Empires, including Palestine, Jordan, Syria, and Lebanon. So in 1948, the British colony of Palestine ceased to be a British colony, and all the Jews in Western Europe were shipped to Palestine, whether they wanted to go or not.
The Americans, British, and French gave the European Jews weapons, and they were able to defeat the Palestinians and drive many of them (but not all) out of Palestine. But this is not genocide because there is no written proof that the Jews were killing Palestinians only because they were Palestinians, proof that is required for the killing to be genocide.
It is, likewise, impossible to prove that Israel have been committing genocide in Ghaza since 7 October 2023: they say they are only targeting terrorists, not Palestinians, and we have no written proof that Israel are killing the Palestinians in Ghaza (and the West Bank) only because they are Palestinians. As one expert said, 'Genocide can only be proven in a case like Germany where they were defeated, and the victors sought and found written proof that they were killing people only because of their religion or ethnic group.' Since it is unlikely that Israel, backed by the US/UK/EU, will be defeated, no proof that Israel are killing Palestinians only because they are Palestinians will ever be found.
So the US/UK/EU have made it a serious criminal offence to accuse Israel of genocide. In fact, it is a criminal offence in the US/UK/EU to make any criticism of Israel, and many protesting for the Palestinians have been arrested, expelled from university, and generally punished for saying anything negative about Israel.
One must say that Israel have the right to self defence, and that killing terrorists who are determined to kill every Jew on earth is Israel's legal right, and non-terrorists killed were human shields, so their deaths are all the fault of the terrorists, not Israel.
Israel have their own translations of the Hamas charter and the school textbooks in Ghaza and the West Bank (in Hebrew and English), and the Israeli translations say it is the duty of every Palestinian to kill every Jew. It is, of course, illegal in the US/UK/EU to question those Israeli translations, we must accept them as proven fact.
So clearly Israel have the right to defend themselves, and this is certainly not genocide, it is a very laudable thing the Israelis are doing in Ghaza and the West Bank. And one must say that or be in serious violation of US/UK/EU law.
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